Railway Group-D Questions(Gorakhpur 16th Nov 2014 Exam)

Gorakhpur Railway Group-D

(16th Nov 2014)

  1. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to the smallest possible area due to the
  1. Force of friction
  2. Centrifugal force        
  3. Force of cohesion
  4. Force of adhesion

Ans- Force of cohesion

  1. Which of the following in the human body is popularly called the ‘Adam’s Apple”?
  1. Liver
  2. Thyroid
  3. Thymus
  4. Adrenal

Ans- Thyroid

  1. In a DNA molecule, nucleosides contain
  1. Nitrogenous base + pentose sugar + phosphoric acid
  2. Nitrogenous base only
  3. Pentose sugar + phosphoric acid
  4. Nitrogenous base + pentose sugar

Ans-  Nitrogenous base + pentose sugar + phosphoric acid

  1. Match the following:

Typhoid                   Bacteria

Malaria                     Virus

AIDS                        Protozoa

Ringworm               worms

                                    Fungi

    A     B      C      D

A.  1      3      2      5

B. 3      1      2      5

C. 1      2      3      4

D. 2      3      5      2

Ans-A

  1. The polarity of an unmarked horseshoe magnet can be determined by using
  1. A magnetic compass
  2. An electroscope
  3. Another unmarked bar magnet
  4. A charged glass rod

Ans- A magnetic compass

  1. How does common salt help in separating soap from the solution after saponification?
  1. By increasing density of soap
  2. By decreasing density of soap
  3. By decreasing solubility of soap
  4. By decreasing solubility of soap

Ans- By decreasing solubility of soap

  1. Vulcanization is a
  1. Method to degrade polymers
  2. Process connected with the making of voltaic cells
  3. Process of hardening of rubber by heating it with sulfur
  4. Science of studying volcanoes

Ans- Process of hardening of rubber by heating it with sulfur

  1. X-ray region lies in between
  1. Visible and ultra-violet region
  2. Gamma rays and ultra-violet region
  3. Short radio waves and ultraviolet region
  4. Short radio wave and visible region

Ans- Gamma rays and ultra-violet region

  1. The half-life period of radium is 1600 years. Its average lifetime will be
  1. 4800 years
  2. 2319 years
  3. 4217 years
  4. 3200 years

Ans-2319 years

10. Match the following:

  1. BCG                Malaria
  2. BPL                 Sore throat
  3. Choro –            quin Tuberculosis
  4. Penicillin          Rabies

      a      b      c      d

A.   3      4      2      1

B.   4      3      2      1

C.   4      3      1      2

D.   3      4      1      2

Ans-D

  1. Milk is an example of
  1. Emulsion
  2. Gel
  3. Suspension
  4. Pure solution

Ans- Emulsion

  1. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Malarial parasite feeds on the blood of man.

Reason (R): One of the parasite adaptions is the loss of digestive system and hence depends host for food.

  1. Both A and R are false
  2. A is true, but R is false
  3. R is true, but A is false
  4. Both A and R are true

Ans- Both A and R are true

13. Sugar in blood and urine is tested with

  1. Brine solution
  2. Hypo solution
  3. Lodine solution
  4. Benedict’s solution

Ans- Benedict’s solution

  1. Which one of the following is correctly matched

A. Caustic Soda –        Calcium carbonate

Soda-lime      –       calcium carbonate

Washing Soda-       Calcium hydroxide

Baking  soda –        Sodium bicarbonate

Ans-D

  1. The frequency of ultrasound wave is typically
  1. Above 20,000 kHz
  2. Below 20 kHz
  3. Below 2 kHz
  4. Above 20 kHz

Ans-D. Above 20 kHz

  1. An example of a buffer solution is
  1. K2SO4 and H2SO4
  2. NaOH and KOH
  3. CH3COOH and CH3COONa
  4. KOH and KCI

Ans-CH3COOH and CH3COONa

  1. Transpiration in land plants largely occurs through
  1. Roots
  2. Stomata
  3. Mesophyll
  4. Xylem

Ans-B. Stomata

  1. Zn is required in plants as it activates
  1. Amylases
  2. Trypsin
  3. Carboxylases
  4. Chlorophyll

Ans-D. Chlorophyll

  1. This tree is pollinated by bats:
  1. Sunflower
  2. Mustard
  3. Zostera marina
  4. Kigeliapinnata

Ans-D. Kigeliapinnata

  1. The cells of this epithelium often bear microvilli
  1. Columnar
  2. Cubical
  3. Ciliated
  4. Squamous

Ans-A. Columnar

  1. Two spheres carrying charge q are hanging from the same point of suspension with the help of threads of length 1 m, in a space free from gravity. The distance between them will be
  1. 0.5 m
  2. 2 m
  3. Cannot be determined
  4. 0

Ans-B. 2 m

  1. Bacillus thuringiens is an example of
  1. Single-cell protein
  2. Biopesticide
  3. Genetically modified food
  4. Biofertilizer

Ans-B. Biopesticide

  1. Assertion (A): The President can nominate two members to the Rajya Sabha.

Reason (R): The nomination is given to give representation to the specialists in the field of arts, literature, theatre, etc.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
  2. (A) is true, but (R) is true.
  3. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  4. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

Ans-C. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

  1. Dog: Puppy: Lion:?
  1. Fawn
  2. Cub
  3. Colt
  4. Lamb

Ans-B. cub

  1. Some words are given which are related in some way. The same relationship obtains among the words in one of the four alternatives given under it, Find the correct alternative.

Hunt: Pleasure: Panic

  1. Game: Match: Win
  2. Theft: Gain: Loss
  3. Rain: Cloud: Flood
  4. Death: Disease: Germs

Ans-B. Theft: Gain: Loss

  1. The crop of a leguminous plant is grown between two cereal crops to compensate the soil for the loss of
  1. S
  2. P
  3. H2O
  4. N

Ans-c. N

27. Directions: (27-30): Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.

  1. Chandragupta
  2. Harshavardhana
  3. Chanakya
  4. Vikramaditya

Ans-C. Chanakya

  1. Pupa
  2. Caterpillar
  3. Nymph
  4. Larva

Ans-C. Nymph

  1. Schizophrenia
  2. Agoraphobia
  3. Alzheimer’s disease
  4. Kleptomania

Ans-C. Alzheimer’s disease

29.

  1. Mosque
  2. Church
  3. Monastery
  4. Cathedral

Ans-C. Monastery

  1. If L denotes + M denotes x, P denotes + and Q denotes – then which of the following statements is true?
  1. 6 M 18 Q 26 L 13 P7=
  2. 11 M 34 L 17 Q8 L 3 =
  3. 9 P9 L9QM9 = -71
  4. 32 P 8 L 16 Q 4= –

Ans-C. 9 P9 L9QM9 = -71

  1. Gorges: Canyons: Meanders
  1. Tributaries
  2. Deltas
  3. Mountains
  4. Moraines

Ans-A. Tributaries

  1. If ‘orange’ is called ‘butter’, butter is called ‘soap’, soap is called ‘ink’, ‘ink’ is called ‘honey’ and ‘honey’ is called ‘orange’, which of the following is used for washing clothes?
  1. Butter
  2. Orange
  3. Ink
  4. Honey

Ans-C. Ink

  1. Assertion (A): Unpolished rice should be eaten.

Reason (R): Polished rice lacks Vitamin B.

Code :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  2. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  3. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  4. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Ans-D. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  1. Which of the following statements of the relationship of national income (Y), consumption (C) and investment (I) in the famous model of Keynes, is correct?
  1. Y=C+I
  2. Y = C*I
  3. Y = C- I
  4. Y=C+I

Ans-A. Y=C+I

  1. If the words in the sentence,” She showed several sample snaps” are rearranged in alphabetical order, which will be the middle word?
  1. Sample
  2. Several
  3. She
  4. Snaps

Ans-C. She

  1. Who defined economics as the study of the relationship between unlimited wants and scarce resources?
  1. Jan Tinbergen
  2. Lionel Robbins
  3. Frederick Von Hayek
  4. J.M. Keynes

Ans-B. Lionel Robbins

  1. Which of the following is note programme under rural development?
  1. RDCI
  2. IRDP
  3. TRYSEM
  4. NREP

Ans-A. RDCI

  1. GATT headquarters is located at
  1. Paris
  2. Washington
  3. Hague
  4. Geneva

Ans-D. Geneva

  1. Which one of the following is not true for the Repo operations?
  1. It increases availability of foreign exchange.
  2. In a Repo, operation object is to regulate credit flow.
  3. In a Repo operation object is to control liquidity in the financial system.
  4. It is conducted by Commercial Banks.

Ans-A. It increases availability of foreign exchange.

  1. Removal of poverty was the foremost objective of which of the following Five-Year Plans?
  1. Third
  2. Fourth
  3. Fifth
  4. Second

Ans-C. Fifth

  1. Who among the following is not a member of the National Development Council?
  1. State Chief Ministers
  2. Members of the Planning Commission
  3. President of India
  4. Prime Minister

Ans-C. President of India

  1. Excise Duties are taxes on
  1. export of commodities
  2. production of commodities
  3. import of commodities
  4. sale of commodities

Ans-B. production of commodities

  1. The Indian Financial Year begins on which of the following dates?
  1. April 1
  2. July 1
  3. None of these
  4. January 1

Ans-A. April 1

  1. Assertion (A): Panchayati Raj institutions were set up to decentralize planning to village level.

Reason (R): Village panchayats are in a better position to have a proper appreciation of their development needs.

Code :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  2. (A) is true, but (R) is false,
  3. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  4. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Ans-D. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  1. Human Development Index is an indicator of
  1. Country position in Regional Spectrum
  2. Country position in Global Spectrum
  3. Country position in Local Spectrum
  4. None of these

Ans-B. Country position in Global Spectrum

  1. When was the Reserve Bank of India taken over by the Government?
  1. 1948
  2. 1952
  3. 1956
  4. 1945

Ans-A. 1948

  1. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
  1. Jamnagar : Maharashtra
  2. Numaligarh : Gujarat
  3. Panagudi : Tamil Nadu
  4. Haldia : Orissa

Ans-C: Panagudi : Tamil Nadu

  1. What is meant by ‘willy-willy”?
  1. An earthquake
  2. A very high tide
  3. A tropical cyclone near India
  4. Tropical cyclone near Australia

Ans-D. Tropical cyclone near Australia

  1. Match the following:
  1. Ursa Major   1. Star
  2. Sirius           2. Constellation
  3. Milky Way    3. Satellite
  4. Titan           4. Galaxy
  5. Planet

a b c d

1 2 4 3

2 1 4 3

2 4 1 3

1 2 3 4

Ans-B. Sirius 

  1. Which of the following is a Great Circle?
  1. The Equator
  2. The Tropic of Capricorn
  3. The Arctic Circle
  4. The Tropic of Cancer

Ans-A. The Equator

  1. The largest desert of the world is in
  1. Saudi Arabia
  2. North Africa
  3. Israel
  4. Iraq

Ans-B. North Africa

  1. Mauna Lou is an example of
  1. extinct volcano
  2. plateau in a volcanic region
  3. dormant volcano
  4. active volcano

Ans-D. active volcano

  1. Which of the following is a warm ocean current?
  1. Peruvian
  2. Labrador
  3. Kuroshio
  4. None of these

Ans-C. Kuroshio

  1. Assertion (A): The State of Jammu and Kashmir has a special status.

Reason (R): It was accorded by the Indian Independence Act, 1947.

Code :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  2. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  3. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  4. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Ans-B. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

  1. The famous Indo Greek king who embraced Buddhism was
  1. Menander
  2. Democritus
  3. Alexander
  4. Strato-I

Ans-B. Democritus

  1. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
  1. Slate –                Granite
  2. Gneiss –              Basalt
  3. Quartzite –          Sandstone
  4.  Schist –             Dolomite

Ans-C.Quartzite – Sandstone

  1. Shivaji was crowned as an independent king at
  1. Surat
  2. Raigarh
  3. Singhagarh
  4. Poona

Ans-B. Raigarh

  1. Match the following:

a. Mughal empire founded in North

India                                                       1. 1526

b. Battle of Plassey                                   2. 1757

c. Arrival of Ibn  Battuta                            3. 1331

d. Razia Sultan’s  accession to Delhi throne  4. 1236

        a b c d

 A.    1 2 3 4

 B.    4 3 1 2

 C.    2 3 1 4

 D.    4 3 2 1

Ans-A

  1. Which of the following is correctly matched?
  1. Give me blood and I will give you freedom.-J.L. Nehru
  2. KarengeyaMarenge.-S.C. Bose
  3. A new star rises, the star of freedom in the East.-Mahatma Gandhi
  4. Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.-B.G. Tilak

Ans-D. Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.-B.G. Tilak

  1. Consider the following four

saints:

  1. Kabir
  2. Nanak
  3. Chaitanya
  4. Tulsidas

What is the correct chronological order in which they flourished?

  1. 2, 3, 4, 1
  2. 3, 1, 2, 4
  3. 3, 2, 4, 1
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4

Ans-D

  1. The founder of the Pala dynasty of Bengal was
  1. Devapala
  2. Gopala
  3. Dharmapala
  4. Mahipala

Ans-B. Gopala

  1. The first Gupta ruler to assume the title of the “Maharajadhiraja’ was
  1. Chandragupta-I
  2. Samudragupta
  3. Ghatotkacha
  4. Srigupta

Ans-A. Chandragupta-I

  1. Who among the following Europeans was first to come to India to establish trade relations with their country?
  1. British
  2. Portuguese
  3. French
  4. Dutch

Ans-B. Portuguese

  1. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is also available to a foreigner on the soil of India?
  1. Freedoms of movement, residence and profession
  2. Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex
  3. Protection of life and personal liberty against action without the authority of law
  4. Equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment

Ans-C. Protection of life and personal liberty against action without the authority of law

  1. The writ of Prohibition issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court against
  1. Administrative and judicial authorities
  2. Administrative authorities and private individuals
  3. Administrative authorities and government
  4. judicial or quasi-judicial authorities

Ans-D. judicial or quasi-judicial authorities

  1. Who among the following decides whether a particular bill is a Money Bill or not?
  1. Speaker of Lok Sabha
  2. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
  3. Finance Minister
  4. President

Ans-A Speaker of Lok Sabha

  1. Which one of the following universities were not established by Lord Dal housie?
  1. Madras
  2. Delhi
  3. Calcutta
  4. Bombay

Ans-B. Delhi

  1. A common High Court for two or more States and/or Union Territory may be established by
  1. Parliament by law
  2. Governor of the State
  3. Chief Justice of India
  4. President

Ans-A. Parliament by law

  1. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Pres ident to call for information from the Government?
  1. 75
  2. 76
  3. 77
  4. 78

Ans-D. 78

  1. In pursuance of the directions of the Supreme Court in the Mandal Commission case, the Parliament enacted the National Commission for Backward Classes Act 1993. Which one of the following is not a function of the NCBC?
  1. To hear complaints of under-inclusion of any backward class
  2. To hear complaints of over-inclusion of any backward class
  3. To identify the creamy layer among the backward
  4. To examine requests for inclusion of a class of citizens as a backward class

Ans-C. To identify the creamy layer among the backward

  1. On which of the following issues can a governor make a recommendation to the President?

1.Dismissal of the State Council of Ministers

2.Removal of the Judges of the High Court

3. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly

4. Declaration of the breakdown of the Constitutional machinery in the State

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Codes:

A. 2, 3 and 4

B. 1, 3 and 4

C. 1, 2 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans-B. Removal of the Judges of the High Court

  1. Which of the following features does not belong to a federal government?
  1. State governments are agents of the Central Government.
  2. Both Central and State Governments derive powers from the Constitution.
  3. Both Central and State Governments have co-ordinate status.
  4. The government has two distinct levels State Government and Central Government.

Ans-C. Both Central and State Governments have co-ordinate status.

  1. Who replaced Virat Kohli as the number one batsman in the ICC ODI batsman ranking released on 21″ June, 2014?
  1. Kumara Sangakkara
  2. Michael Clarke
  3. A B de Villiers
  4. Shikhar Dhawan

Ans-C. A B de Villiers

  1. Who was chosen for the prestigious Jnanpith Award for 2013 on 20 June, 2014?
  1. Kedarnath Singh
  2. Pratibha Ray
  3. Satya VratShastri
  4. Ravuri Bharadhwaja

Ans-A. Kedarnath Singh

  1. Who was appointed as Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Infosys on 114 June, 2014?
  1. S.D. Shibulal
  2. B.G. Srinivas
  3. Vishal Sikka
  4. N.R. Narayana Murthy

Ans-C. Vishal Sikka

  1. Who has topped the Forbes annual list of Most Powerful Women 2014 in the world?
  1. Hillary Clinton
  2. Angela Merkel
  3. Christine Lagarde
  4. Melinda Gates

Ans-B. Angela Merkel

  1. Who was unanimously elected as Speaker of the 16thLok Sabha on 6th June, 2014?
  1. Manohar Joshi
  2. Meira Kumar
  3. Kamal Nath
  4. Sumitra Mahajan

Ans-D. Sumitra Mahajan

  1. National Science Day is observed on
  1. 27th February
  2. 28th February
  3. 1st March
  4. 26th February

Ans-B. 28th February

  1. Who won the Sahitya Akademi Award-2013?
  1. Gulzar
  2. Salman Rushdie
  3. None of these
  4. Javed Akhtar

Ans-D. None of these

  1. Name the city which on 7th April, 2014 received its first passenger train.
  1. Dispur, the capital of Assam
  2. Aizawl, the capital of Mizoram
  3. Agartala, the capital of Tripura
  4. Itanagar, the capital of Arunachal Pradesh

Ans-D. Itanagar, the capital of Arunachal Pradesh

  1. How many nations are participated in XX Commonwealth Games?
  1. 61
  2. 51
  3. 41
  4. 71

Ans-D. 71

  1. Assertion (A): A particle moving in a uniform circular motion has uniform velocity.

Reason (R): The particle also has a uniform speed.

Code:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  2. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  3. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  4. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Ans-A. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

  1. A field in the shape of a rhombus has the distances between pairs of opposite vertices as 14m and 48m. What is the cost of fencing the field At Rs20 per meter (in rupees)?
  1. 2,000
  2. 2,500
  3. 1,800
  4. 1,500

Ans-A. 2,000

  1. Who is awarded for best performance in a negative role in the 15th IIFA Awards?
  1. Anupam Kher (Special 26)
  2. Boman Irani (Don-2)
  3. None of these
  4. Rishi Kapoor (D-Day)

Ans-D. Rishi Kapoor (D-Day)

  1. A die is rolled until it shows up a four. What is the probability of the sixth trial being the final trial?
  1. 59/69
  2. 57/67
  3. 56/67
  4. 55/66

Ans-D. 55/66

  1. The first Republic day of India was celebrated on 26th January, 1950. It was
  1. Tuesday.
  2. Thursday
  3. Friday
  4. Monday

Ans-B. Thursday

  1. Bricks are worth Rs 750 per1000 and their length, breadth and height 25 cm, 12.5 cm and 7.5 cm respectively. The cost of bricks required to build a wall 200 m long, 1.8 m high and 37.5 cm thick, is
  1. Rs 43,200
  2. Rs 40,750
  3. Rs 41, 860
  4. Rs 42,600

Ans-A. Rs43,200

  1. The cost of cultivating as quare field at the rate of 160 per hectare is Rs 1,440. The cost of putting a fence around it at 75 paise per meter is
  1. Rs 1,800
  2. Rs 360
  3. Rs 5810
  4. Rs 900

Ans-D. Rs 900

  1. The salary earned by a man for three months is in the ratio of 2:4:5. If the difference between the product of salaries of the first two months to that of the last two months (when taken in rupees) is 4,80,00,000 then find the salary of the man for the second month.
  1. Rs 8,000
  2. Rs 8.500
  3. Rs 7,800
  4. Rs 7,500

Ans-A. Rs 8,000

  1. A grocer claims to sell sugar at cost price but has a concealed weight of 100 gram in the pan in which he keeps sugar. By mistake, his son weighs by keeping the weight in this pan and sugar in the other. On sale of 1 kg of sugar, he will lose
  1. 9%
  2. 10%
  3. 11%
  4. 8%

Ans-B. 10%

  1. A third of Vinod’s marks in Mathematics exceeds half of his marks in Social Studies by 30. If he got 240 marks in the two subjects together, how many marks did he get in Social Studies?
  1. 60
  2. 80
  3. 90
  4. 40

Ans-A. 60

  1. An increase of Rs60 in the monthly salary of Madan’s made it 50% of the monthly salary of Kamal. What is Madan’s present monthly salary?
  1. Rs 240
  2. Rs 300
  3. Data inadequate
  4. Rs 180

Ans-C. Data inadequate

  1. A sum of Rs 550 was taken as a loan. This is to be repaid in two equal annual installments. If the rate of interest be 20% compounded annually, then the value of each installment is
  1. Rs 396
  2. Rs 360
  3. Rs 350
  4. Rs 421

Ans-B. Rs 360

  1. After five years the age of a father will be thrice the age of his son, whereas five years ago, he was seven times as old as his son was. What is father’s present age?
  1. 40 years
  2. 45 years
  3. 50 years
  4. 35 years

Ans-A. 40 years

  1. The simplification of

Yields the result

  1. (1)
  2. (2)
  3. (3)
  4. (4)

Ans-B

  1. A is working and B, a sleeping partner in a business. A puts in Rs 12,000 and B 20,000. A receives 10% of the profits for managing, the rest being divided in proportion to their capitals. Out of a total profit of Rs 9,600, the money received by A is
  1. Rs 4,200
  2. Rs 3,600
  3. Rs 4,500
  4. (4)Rs 3,240

Ans-A. Rs 4,200

  1. Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution closely follows the British Parliamentary model.

Reason (R) In India, the Upper House of the Parliament has judicial powers. Code:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  2. (A) is true, but (R) is false
  3. (A) is false, but (R) is true
  4. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Ans-B. (A) is true, but (R) is false

  1. The failure of light to travel strictly in a straight line known as
  1. Polarization
  2. Refraction
  3. Diffraction
  4. Dispersion

Ans-B. Refraction

  1. The distance between two stations A and B is 220 km, A train leaves A towards B as an average speed of 80 km hr. After half an hour, another train leaves B towards A at an average speed of 100 km/hr. The distance of the point where the two trains meet, from A is
  1. 130 km
  2. 140 km
  3. 150 km
  4. 120 km

Ans-D. 120 km